Answer :

Certainly! Let's simplify the given expression step-by-step:

[tex]\[ \frac{\tan x \cos x}{\sin x} \][/tex]

1. Recall the definition of [tex]\(\tan x\)[/tex]. The tangent function is defined as the ratio of the sine of [tex]\(x\)[/tex] to the cosine of [tex]\(x\)[/tex]:

[tex]\[ \tan x = \frac{\sin x}{\cos x} \][/tex]

2. Substitute [tex]\(\tan x\)[/tex] in the original expression:

[tex]\[ \frac{\left( \frac{\sin x}{\cos x} \right) \cos x}{\sin x} \][/tex]

3. Simplify inside the numerator. Notice that [tex]\(\frac{\sin x}{\cos x} \cdot \cos x\)[/tex] simplifies to [tex]\(\sin x\)[/tex]:

[tex]\[ \frac{\sin x}{\sin x} \][/tex]

4. Finally, any non-zero value divided by itself is 1:

[tex]\[ \frac{\sin x}{\sin x} = 1 \][/tex]

Therefore, the simplified form of the expression is:

[tex]\[ 1 \][/tex]

Thus, the result is:

[tex]\[ 1 \][/tex]

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